DTAA provisions on dividend income from US equities tax liability
Sir / Madam,
I have dividend income from US equities. This income is taxed at 25% in USA. I have filed form 67 and sought relief through the tax credit method to avoid double taxation. I have a tax demand from CPC asking me to pay the balance tax (i am in the highest tax bracket) with surcharge and cess after accounting for the tax credit . But I have the following question,
I would like to quote subparagraph (b) of Section 1 under Article 2 of the India – USA tax treaty that mentions the tax covered in treaty shall include the income tax including any surcharge thereon referred to as “Indian Tax”. I would like to further quote the subparagraph (b) of Article 10 of the India –USA Tax Treaty which specifies that the tax charged shall not exceed 25% of the gross amount of dividends.Applying the above 2 clauses, there should not be any surcharge and cess levied on the foreign source dividend income as the tax rates specified under DTAA already includes these.
I would also like to quote , the section 90(2) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 which states that ,
“Where the Central Government has entered into an agreement with the Government of any country outside India or specified territory outside India, as the case may be, under sub-section (1) for granting relief of tax, or as the case may be, avoidance of double taxation, then, in relation to the assessee to whom such agreement applies, the provisions of this Act shall apply to the extent they are more beneficial to that assessee.”
In other words, if the provisions of DTAA are more beneficial to the tax payer, then the provisions of DTAA would prevail over the Indian Income Tax Act. Applying the above clause, the foreign source dividend income should be taxable at the rate beneficial to the assesse i.e 25% (as prescribed in Article 10 of the India – USA Tax Treaty) and not at applicable rates.As taxes are already paid in the USA, there should not be any additional tax liability under DTAA after considering foreign tax credit.
Further , the non discriminatory clause states that the residents cannot be treated differently with respect to taxation
I have also quoted few case law to support this argument and also filed a grievance with CPC.
Reliance in this regard is also placed on the following decisions in support of our contentions:-
a) Kolkata Tribunal and Mumbai Tribunal DIC Asia Pacific Pte Ltd vs Asst Director of Income Tax, International Taxation in ITA No. 1458 (kol) of 2011 dated 20.6.2012 for Asst Year 2009-10 reported in (2012) 52 SOT 447 (Kol ITAT)
b) ITO (Intl Taxn) vs M/s M Far Hotels Ltd in ITA Nos. 430 to 435 / Coch / 2011 dated 5.4.2013 (Cochin Tribunal)
c) Sunil V. Motiani vs ITO (International Taxation) reported in (2013) 33 taxmann.com 252 (Mumbai Trib)
Response from CPC is that since I am an Indian resident as per provisions of IT Act , the dividend income cannot be charged at DTAA rates and balance tax has to be paid
Asked 2 months ago in Income Tax
Thanks to CA Damini and Shubham for providing suitable explanations.
Special Shout out to CA Damini on detail explanations.
I re read the tax treaty and its clear that tax referred in the treaty only talks about TDS CAP and not about resident taxation for both countries. The treaty is silent about resident tax rate. All it says that the resident may be taxed in the other country. So I dont see any ground for appeal or challenge CPC.
My understanding : applying the TDS CAP logic, the "Indian Income Tax including any surcharge thereon" as specified in the treaty, applies to only non residents. When a non resident earns income in India (source ), since the DTAA specifies the TDS rate cap , the tax should be deducted according to this rate CAP.
The case law cited and many more are mostly related to non residents disputing "surcharge + cess" levied separately on India income . Unlike my case where income source is USA, I cannot use this arguement as I am a Indian resident for tax purpose.
I see same wordings for royalties /interest and silence on resident tax rates
So , question to CA Damini / Shubham :how can i argue that surcharge /cess should not be levied separately and file an appeal ?
Also I have some apprehensions about filing appeal on weak grounds, if there will be some kind of retailiation . Will there be some kind of witch hunting , like scrutnizing by returns and finding out some mistakes and levying penalty etc.. I dont want to shoot my own foot. In trying to save some money , i dont want to end up in a bigger mess.
One eg : I have been relying on 1042S for claiming FTC. But its provided on a calendar year basis different from our FY.On advise of my current CA that tax authorities rely on 1042S for verification, for declaring foreign dividen income, i dont include the Jan-Mar (last qtr dividend) for the current year as its not reflected in1042S which otherwise creates mismatch. I show it in next year return in sync with 1042S
Asked 2 months ago
Thanks once again for clarity. Major portion of my income is from employer RSUs and foreign dividend is arising due of this. Its a recurring income every year based on the RSU holdings.
As its a recurring income, if an appeal works in my favour , then the savings could be decent over the period of time. But I dont see any merit in appeal after understanding the DTAA in detail. Besides, DTAA is a provision to help tax payers to avoid double taxation by offering credits on tax paid. I got lost in wordings.
I will settle with your practical advice . This issue exists for FY 23 / FY24 . CPC has responded to FY24 grievance that I am an Indian resident for tax purpose. I should have contacted this group earlier . I could have saved some heavy interest on the outstanding amount. On the reconciliation note, Is it some thing i need to submit during tax filing or is it for book keeping purpose for my own records?
I spend a lot of time preparing sch FA mainly the table A3 . In the gross income column, I distribute the dividend income across holdings, the peak value column by multiplying the highest value of the share price in that year by TTBR on that date . For closing value , I take the share price on Dec31 and multiply by TTBR and populate it. There is lot of data and I dont know how these numbers are useful for tax purposes. I tally and ensure the sum of gross income column matches foreign dividend. I keep record of every number entered in the table hoping that it may be useful on a rainy day
For one of my holdings (American Depository Shares) , the tax is withheld in Taiwan, ROC. Obtaining official tax certificate is becoming difficult. The broker is providing 1042-S form only for US withholdings. Can i submit a broker stmt in this case showing the tax withheld to claim FTC?
For TTBR on last day of previous month, I rely on GitHub maintained by one Sahil Gupta.
I will connect with you in near future to audit my filing methodology and close any gaps
Asked 1 month ago
I am confused on what Fx rate to be used for USD to INR conversion for the purpose of computing capital gains from selling foreign shares and foreign dividend income.
I looked up RBI reference rates here,
https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/ReferenceRateArchive.aspx
It does not mention anything about TTBR.
I compared these reference rates to the one from github which archives daily SBI Forex Card Rates (Page 1 of the PDF) (CARD RATES FOR TRANSACTIONS BETWEEN Rs. 10 LACS AND Rs. 20 LACS.(To be used as reference rates)
https://github.com/sahilgupta/sbi-fx-ratekeeper/tree/main/pdf_files
Specifically , the first column under "TT BUY" for USD / INR
I see difference of roughly 25-30 paise , with SBI TTBR being lower on that date.
For eg , RBI reference rate on 31 May 2024 is 83.2988 vs SBI TTBR on the same date being 83.05
My current computation uses SBI TTBR from github as is.Your last response mentions about ensuring the excel source aligning with the RBI official TTBR pdf etc, I am not sure how to go about it.
Rule 26 seem to say this,
"telegraphic transfer buying rate", in relation to a foreign currency, means the rate or rates of exchange adopted by the State Bank of India constituted under the State Bank of India Act, 1955 (23 of 1955), for buying such currency, having regard to the guidelines specified from time to time by the Reserve Bank of India for buying such currency, where such currency is made available to that bank through a tele- graphic transfer;
It mentions both about SBI and RBI but specifically about rates adopted by SBI within the guidelines of RBI.
So it is not very clear what Fx rate i should use for INR conversion
I could not find any RBI PDF.It gave me an option to download in xls format
Even RBI seems to have outsourced the work of publishing refernce rate to FBIL
Can you clear this confusion and guide me with an example based on the data from website links I shared above as this impacts INR income?
Asked 1 month ago
As told earlier,I have been claiming FTC/Form67 based on 1042S(CY basis)
This year 1042S has 2 groups,
1)Code 01-Interest paid by US obligors-general
2)Code 06-Dividends paid by US corporations -general
For grp1,no tax & 25% tax is withheld for grp2
Grp 1 is actually dividend income from Fidelity MMF but wrongly given code 01.The RSU sale proceeds,dividends are autosweeped into this MMF
Although the total income (grp 1 + 2) and tax withheld is correct, there are some issues.The dividend distributed from company RSUs should match grp 2. But some portion of grp1 income is wrongly moved to grp2 . If i sum all the dividends from table A3 of Sch FA it does not match grp 2. Will this be an issue and flagged?
I read your replies about incorrect 1042S in another post wherein you are asking to attach the broker stmt & also provide a declaration
Dont want to complicate things as I have been enclosing/relying on 1042S data for FTC/Form 67 in the past.
Since the total income & tax withheld is correct,to simplify things,option 1 is to ignore this group wise mismatch and just total the grp 1 & 2 as single dividend income in form67 and claim FTC
In form67,it asks about tax paid outside India and rate%.Especially if i plan to club grp1 & 2 together (option 1),I am not sure what to enter rate % since grp1 income is not taxed and grp2 income is taxed at 25%
Easy Option is to create a 2nd dividend entry and mention 0% matching 1042S -my preferred option
For RSU sold mid year how to compute peak & closing value in table A3?
For MMF dividend,plan to give details in table G as could not find any relevant table.Worried that ITD may treat it as additional investment if i put it in table A3,B or D.Can i skip reporting this altogether & just populate A2 with dividend? I feel at times being genuine & providing all info,may get one into trouble due to lack of understanding & get penalized for misreporting as its complicated
please advise in detail on all queries
Asked 1 month ago