• Form 145, section 58

2 questions:
1. Form 145 (that replaced 15CA) - A sole prop firm is paying salary (not exceeding 5 lakh in current FY) to a NRI (OCI card holder) employee into their "NRO account" (not remitting outside India) . Does the employer need to file form 145 ? 
First line on the IT website for form 145 says says in bold that is for "sending money outside india". 
https://www.incometax.gov.in/iec/foportal/newformpage/forms/form145-UM
also some people say not required because salary is covered under different section. please clarify. 

2. Section 58 (category 3) - on govt website, under "manner of computation" it says "50% of the gross receipts or profit claimed to have been actually earned, whichever is higher." 
what does "profit claimed to have been actually earned" mean? why would someone "claim" a higher profit if law allows 50%? is the taxpayer supposed to calculate the profit, which goes against the whole idea of not having to maintain books? will AO be able to say "your actual profit was 75% so pay additional tax, interest and penalty" ? how would taxpayer counter it if they did not maintain books/receipts? is there any other guidance elsewhere that govt has provided?
Asked 12 hours ago in Income Tax

Dear Sir,

 

Hope you are doing well.

 

Please find below the responses:

 

1. Based on the facts provided, Form 145 should not be required.

The principal reason is that the transaction does not involve a remittance outside India. An NRO account is an Indian bank account maintained in India. Crediting salary to such an account is a domestic banking transaction, notwithstanding the non-resident status of the account holder.

The official guidance issued for Form 145 repeatedly describes the form as the replacement for old Form 15CA in the context of "sending money outside India" and "remittances". The compliance framework appears intended to capture foreign remittances rather than every payment made to a non-resident.

Accordingly, where:

  • the salary is paid in India,
  • the amount is credited to an Indian NRO account, and
  • no outward remittance occurs,

the stronger legal view is that Form 145 is not attracted.

 

2.Under Section 58, tax is usually calculated on a simple basis:

  • either 50% of total receipts, or
  • the actual profit if the taxpayer himself declares a higher amount.

You can normally pay tax on 50% without maintaining books. Higher profit is considered only if you yourself declare it.

 

 

 

If you require any further detailed clarification or assistance, you may schedule a telephonic consultation at your convenience.

 

Thanks & Regards,

Payal Chhajed

 

 

Payal Chhajed
CA, Mumbai
5200 Answers
308 Consultations

Dear Querist,


  1. Form 145 is not required where salary is only credited in India to the employee’s NRO account and there is no remittance outside India. The employer should comply with normal salary TDS/Form 24Q/Form 16.
  2. In Section 58, “profit actually earned” means higher profit voluntarily declared by the taxpayer, if he wants to declare more than 50%. If you declare 50% or more, books/audit are generally not required under presumptive taxation.

AO cannot simply assume 75% profit without evidence. Keep basic proof of gross receipts, bank entries and invoices, if available.

For a more detailed review of your case, you may book a phone consultation.

CA Shubham Goyal

Shubham Goyal
CA, Delhi
588 Answers
22 Consultations

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